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Apr-2023 Download Free Latest Exam 312-38 Certified Sample Questions

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Understanding functional and technical aspects of Certified Network Defender Security Principles and Practices

The following will be discussed in ECCOUNCIL EC 312-38 exam dumps:

• Leverage Zero Trust Model Security utilizing Programming Defined Perimeter (SDP)
• Conduct security mindfulness preparing
• Understand principal objective, advantages, and difficulties in network protection
• Discuss security advantages of organization division strategies
• Describe the different instances of host-level assault strategies
• Describe the different instances of remote organization explicit assault methods
• Describe the different instances of email assault methods
• Select firewalls dependent on its profound traffic examination ability
• Redefine Access Control security in Today’s
• Learn to plan and foster security approaches
• Discuss IDS/IPS arrangement – Discuss different parts of IDS – Discuss viable organization of organization and host-based IDS
• Learn to how to manage bogus positive and bogus negative IDS cautions
• Explain Continual/Adaptive security procedure
• Discuss other regulatory safety efforts
• Describe the different instances of social designing assault strategies
• Distributed and Mobile Computing World
• Discuss Identity and Access Management (IAM) ideas
• Describe Attacker’s Hacking Methodologies and Frameworks
• Understand firewall geographies and their use – Distinguish between equipment, programming, have, network, inner, and outer firewalls
• Explain fundamental wordings identified with network security assaults
• Obtain consistence with administrative structures

Q36. The————–protocol works in the network layer and is responsible for handling the error codes during the delivery of packets. This protocol is also responsible for providing communication in the TCP/IP stack.

 RARP

 ICMP

 DHCP

 ARP

Q37. CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
A ______________ is a term in computer terminology used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized use of information systems.

honeypot
Explanation:
A honeypot is a term in computer terminology used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized use of information systems. Generally it consists of a computer, data, or a network site that appears to be part of a network, but is actually isolated, and monitored, and which seems to contain information or a resource of value to attackers.

Q38. Alice wants to prove her identity to Bob. Bob requests her password as proof of identity, which Alice dutifully provides (possibly after some transformation like a hash function); meanwhile, Eve is eavesdropping the conversation and keeps the password. After the interchange is over, Eve connects to Bob posing as Alice; when asked for a proof of identity, Eve sends Alice’s password read from the last session, which Bob accepts. Which of the following attacks is being used by Eve?

 Replay

 Fire walking

 Cross site scripting

 Session fixation

Q39. Which of the following is not part of the recommended first response steps for network defenders?

 Restrict yourself from doing the investigation

 Extract relevant data from the suspected devices as early as possible

 Disable virus protection

 Do not change the state of the suspected device

Q40. Which of the following sets of incident response practices is recommended by the CERT/CC?

 Prepare, notify, and follow up

 Notify, handle, and follow up

 Prepare, handle, and notify

 Prepare, handle, and follow up

Q41. Which of the following statements are true about security risks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

 They are considered an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.

 They can be removed completely by taking proper actions.

 They can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.

 They can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.

In information security, security risks are considered an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability. In other words, security risk is a probabilistic function of a given threat agent exercising a particular vulnerability and the impact of that risk on the organization. Security risks can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks. These risks can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
Answer option B is incorrect. Security risks can never be removed completely but can be mitigated by taking proper actions.

Q42. Which of the following is an attack on a website that changes the visual appearance of the site and seriously damages the trust and reputation of the website?

 Website defacement

 Zero-day attack

 Spoofing

 Buffer overflow

Website defacement is an attack on a website that changes the visual appearance of the site. These are typically the work of system crackers, who break into a Web server and replace the hosted website with one of their own. Sometimes, the Defacer makes fun of the system administrator for failing to maintain server security. Most times, the defacement is harmless; however, it can sometimes be used as a distraction to cover up more sinister actions such as uploading malware.
A high-profile website defacement was carried out on the website of the company SCO Group following its assertion that Linux contained stolen code. The title of the page was changed from Red Hat vs. SCO to SCO vs. World with various satirical content.
Answer option D is incorrect. Buffer overflow is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept. This usually occurs due to programming errors in the application. Buffer overflow can terminate or crash the application.
Answer option B is incorrect. A zero-day attack, also known as zero-hour attack, is a computer threat that tries to exploit computer application vulnerabilities which are unknown to others, undisclosed to the software vendor, or for which no security fix is available. Zero-day exploits (actual code that can use a security hole to carry out an attack) are used or shared by attackers before the software vendor knows about the vulnerability. User awareness training is the most effective technique to mitigate such attacks.
Answer option C is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else’s IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected.

Q43. Which of the following policies helps in defining what users can and should do to use network and
organization’s computer equipment?

 General policy

 Remote access policy

 IT policy

 User policy

A user policy helps in defining what users can and should do to use network and organization’s computer
equipment. It also defines what limitations are put on users for maintaining the network secure such as
whether users can install programs on their workstations, types of programs users are using, and how users
can access data.
Answer option C is incorrect. IT policy includes general policies for the IT department. These policies are
intended to keep the network secure and stable. It includes the following:
Virus incident and security incident
Backup policy
Client update policies
Server configuration, patch update, and modification policies (security)
Firewall policies Dmz policy, email retention, and auto forwarded email policy
Answer option A is incorrect. It defines the high level program policy and business continuity plan.
Answer option B is incorrect. Remote access policy is a document that outlines and defines acceptable
methods of remotely connecting to the internal network.

Q44. Which of the following topologies is a type of physical network design where each computer in the network is connected to a central device through an unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) wire?

 Mesh topology

 Star topology

 Ring topology

 Bus topology

Star topology is a type of physical network design where each computer in the network is connected to a central device, called hub, through an unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) wire. Signals from the sending computer go to the hub and are then transmitted to all the computers in the network. Since each workstation has a separate connection to the hub, it is easy to troubleshoot. Currently, it is the most popular topology used for networks.
Star Topology:

Answer option A is incorrect. Mesh network topology is a type of physical network design where all devices in a network are connected to each other with many redundant connections. It provides multiple paths for the data traveling on the network to reach its destination. Mesh topology also provides redundancy in the network. It employs the full mesh and partial mesh methods to connect devices. In a full mesh topology network, each computer is connected to all the other computers. In a partial mesh topology network, some of the computers are connected to all the computers, whereas some are connected to only those computers with which they frequently exchange data.
Mesh Topology:

Answer option D is incorrect. Bus topology is a type of physical network design where all computers in the network are connected through a single coaxial cable known as bus. This topology uses minimum cabling and is therefore, the simplest and least expensive topology for small networks. In this topology, 50 ohm terminators terminate both ends of the network. A Bus topology network is difficult to troubleshoot, as a break or problem at any point along the cable can cause the entire network to go down.
Bus Topology:

Answer option C is incorrect. Ring topology is a type of physical network design where all computers in the network are connected in a closed loop. Each computer or device in a Ring topology network acts as a repeater. It transmits data by passing a token around the network in order to prevent the collision of data between two computers that want to send messages at the same time. If a token is free, the computer waiting to send data takes it, attaches the data and destination address to the token, and sends it. When the token reaches its destination computer, the data is copied. Then, the token gets back to the originator. The originator finds that the message has been copied and received and removes the message from the token. Now, the token is free and can be used by the other computers in the network to send data. In this topology, if one computer fails, the entire network goes down.
Ring Topology:

Q45. The bank where you work has 600 windows computers and 400 Red Hat computers which primarily serve as bank teller consoles. You have created a plan and deployed all the patches to the Windows computers and you are now working on updating the Red Hat computers. What command should you run on the network to update the Red Hat computers, download the security package, force the package installation, and update all currently installed packages?

 You should run the up2date -d -f -u command

 You should run the up2data -u command

 You should run the WSUS -d -f -u command.

 You should type the sysupdate -d command

Q46. Which of the following is a network interconnectivity device that translates different communication protocols and is used to connect dissimilar network technologies?

 Gateway

 Router

 Bridge

 Switch

A gateway is a network interconnectivity device that translates different communication protocols and is used to connect dissimilar network technologies. It provides greater functionality than a router or bridge because a gateway functions both as a translator and a router. Gateways are slower than bridges and routers. A gateway is an application layer device. Answer option B is incorrect. A router is an electronic device that interconnects two or more computer networks. It selectively interchanges packets of data between them. It is a networking device whose software and hardware are customized to the tasks of routing and forwarding information. It helps in forwarding data packets between networks. Answer option C is incorrect. A bridge is an interconnectivity device that connects two local area networks (LANs) or two segments of the same LAN using the same communication protocols, and provides address filtering between them. Users can use this device to divide busy networks into segments and reduce network traffic. A bridge broadcasts data packets to all the possible destinations within a specific segment. Bridges operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model. Answer option D is incorrect. A switch is a network device that selects a path or circuit for sending a data unit to its next destination. It is not required in smaller networks, but is required in large inter-networks, where there can be many possible ways of transmitting a message from a sender to destination. The function of switch is to select the best possible path. On an Ethernet local area network (LAN), a switch determines from the physical device (Media Access Control or MAC) address in each incoming message frame which output port to forward it to and out of. In a wide area packet-switched network, such as the Internet, a switch determines from the IP address in each packet which output port to use for the next part of its trip to the intended destination.

Q47. Which of the following is an electronic device that helps in forwarding data packets along networks?

 Router

 Hub

 Repeater

 Gateway

Q48. If there is a fire incident caused by an electrical appliance short-circuit, which fire suppressant should be used to control it?

 Water

 Wet chemical

 Dry chemical

 Raw chemical

Q49. Which of the following is an exterior gateway protocol that communicates using a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and sends the updated router table information?

 IGMP

 IRDP

 OSPF

 BGP

Q50. FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. The ______________ layer establishes, manages, and terminates
the connections between the local and remote application.

session
Explanation:
The session layer of the OSI/RM controls the dialogues (connections) between computers. It establishes,
manages and terminates the connections between the local and remote application. It provides for full-duplex,
half-duplex, or simplex operation, and establishes checkpointing, adjournment, termination, and restart
procedures. The OSI model made this layer responsible for graceful close of sessions, which is a property of
the Transmission Control Protocol, and also for session check pointing and recovery, which is not usually used
in the Internet Protocol Suite. The Session Layer is commonly implemented explicitly in application
environments that use remote procedure calls.

Q51. Which of the following standards defines Logical Link Control (LLC)?

 802.2

 802.3

 802.5

 802.4

Q52. Which of the following is a mandatory password-based and key-exchange authentication protocol?

 PPP

 CHAP

 VRRP

 DH-CHAP

Q53. Which of the following tools is a free laptop tracker that helps in tracking a user’s laptop in case it gets stolen?

 SAINT

 Adeona

 Snort

 Nessus

Q54. Management asked Adam to implement a system allowing employees to use the same credentials to access multiple applications. Adam should implement the————————–authentication technique to satisfy the management request.

 Two-factor Authentication

 Smart Card Authentication

 Single-sign-on

 Biometric

Q55. CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.______________is a codename referring to investigations and studies of compromising emission (CE).

TEMPEST
Explanation:
TEMPEST is a codename referring to investigations and studies of compromising emission (CE). Compromising emanations are defined as unintentional intelligence-bearing signals which, if intercepted and analyzed, may disclose the information transmitted, received, handled, or otherwise processed by any information-processing equipment. Tempest stands for Transient ElectroMagnetic Pulse Emanations Standard according to Certified Information Systems Security Professional training. TEMPEST was the name of a U.S. government project to study the effects of electric or electromagnetic radiation emanations from electronic equipment.

Q56. Which of the following is a congestion control mechanism that is designed for unicast flows operating in an Internet environment and competing with TCP traffic?

 Sliding Window

 TCP Friendly Rate Control

 Selective Acknowledgment

 Additive increase/multiplicative-decrease

Q57. James wants to implement certain control measures to prevent denial-of-service attacks against the organization. Which of the following control measures can help James?

 Strong passwords

 Reduce the sessions time-out duration for the connection attempts

 A honeypot in DMZ

 Provide network-based anti-virus

Q58. Which of the following is an electronic device that helps in forwarding data packets along networks?

 Router

 Hub

 Repeater

 Gateway

Q59. Which of the following protocols is used to exchange encrypted EDI messages via email?

 S/MIME

 MIME

 HTTP

 HTTPS

 Loading …

Understanding functional and technical aspects of Certified Network Defender Business Principles and Practices

The following will be discussed in ECCOUNCIL EC 312-38 exam dumps:

• Discuss and implement wireless network security measures
• Describe incident handling and response process
• Learn to conduct attack simulation
• Learn to manage risk though risk management program
• Understand the Insights of Cloud Security
• Learn vulnerability assessment and scanning
• Perform network monitoring and analysis for suspicious traffic using Wireshark
• Discuss log monitoring and analysis on Windows systems
• Describe forensics investigation process
• Understand the role of cyber threat intelligence in network defense
• Learn different Risk Management Frameworks (RMF)
• Understand wireless network fundamentals
• Learn to reduce the attack surface
• Understand the role of first responder in incident response
• Discuss security in Microsoft Azure Cloud
• Understand the layers of Threat Intelligence
• Learn to manage vulnerabilities through vulnerability management program
• Discuss log monitoring and analysis on Routers
• Understand Cloud Computing Fundamentals
• Understand incident response concept
• Understand the need and advantages of network traffic monitoring
• Determine baseline traffic signatures for normal and suspicious network traffic
• Understand wireless network encryption mechanisms
• Evaluate CSP for Security before Consuming Cloud Service
• Discuss log monitoring and analysis on Firewall
• Discuss log monitoring and analysis on Mac
• Understand different types of threat Intelligence
• Understand risk management concepts
• Discuss network performance and bandwidth monitoring concepts
• Discuss various BC/DR Standards
• Understand and visualize your attack surface
• Understand the Indicators of Threat Intelligence: Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) and Indicators of Attack (IoA)
• Discuss BC/DR Activities
• Learn to identify Indicators of Exposures (IoE)
• Understand wireless network authentication methods
• Introduction to Business Continuity (BC) and Disaster Recovery (DR)
• Discuss general security best practices and tools for cloud security
• Understand the attack surface analysis
• Discuss log monitoring and analysis on Web Servers
• Discuss log monitoring and analysis on Linux
• Understand logging concepts
• Learn to leverage/consume threat intelligence for proactive defense

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